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Question:
Consider a square well with one finite wall and one infinite wall. Compare the energy and momentum of a particle trapped in this well to the energy and momentum of an ideal particle trapped in an infinite well with the same width.
Attempt/thoughts:
Can you treat the particle as if it's in a finite well, if you take the odd value of n (the energy level)? Or if you found the penetration depth (1/) could you then add that onto the width of the well and treat it as an infinite well? As in L
= (L+1/
) and then just use it in the eqn E
= n
pi
(h-bar)
/(2mL
), for n=1,2,...?
And I don't know how you would find momentum from that, there are so many momentum equations I've been provided with recently, I'm really very confused!
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