Physics education research, electronic materials, and the musings of Christopher Moore, Ph.D.

Assuming linear resistors, no. This follows from Thevenin's Theorem (or, equivalently, Norton's Theorem). Essentially, any linear network consisting of a pair of terminals connected to any combination of energy sources and resistances is electrically equivalent to those same terminals connected to a circuit consisting of a single energy source and a single resistance.

Bikashya wrote:

Please answer it that will be understandable to pre university students. I cnt afford 2 learn norton's theorem or thenevian bcoz it is not in our syllabus.

I answered your question. I mentioned Thevenin's Theorem and Norton's Theorem (they really are the same thing) only to explain how to "prove" the answer.

In very simple terms, any combination of linear resistors* can be "reduced to" (i.e., replaced by) a single "equivalent" resistor—a resistor whose resistance is the same as that produced by that combination of resistors. But while every combination of resistors can be "reduced to" one—and only one—"equivalent" resistor, the reverse is not true: There are an infinite number of combinations of resistors that will "reduce to" the same "equivalent" resistor.

Since there are an infinite number of combinations of resistors that "reduce to" the same "equivalent" resistor, you can always find many combinations—an infinite number, actually—that consist of series and parallel combinations. Therefore, no matter how you connect resistors together, the result can always be "reduced to" some combination of series and parallel combinations.


*A "linear" resistor is an "ordinary" resistor—one whose resistance doesn't change when the current through it/voltage across it changes.

reduce  in resistance

I somehow heard by my fren that it could be possible by connecting high resistance in between low resistsnce in parallel